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ASC-094 - ASC Storage Management Assessment - Dump Information

Vendor : Symantec
Exam Code : ASC-094
Exam Name : ASC Storage Management Assessment
Questions and Answers : 77 Q & A
Updated On : Click to Check Update
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ASC-094 Questions and Answers

Pass4sure ASC-094 Dumps with Real Questions & Practice Test


When implementing Storage Foundation 5.1 on a Linux server with pre-existing LVM volumes, which two circumstances would prevent you from being able to convert an LVM Volume Group to a Veritas Volume Manager Diskgroup? (Select two.)

  1. The volume group contains a root volume.

  2. The volume group contains ext2 file system.

  3. There is insufficient space on the root disk to save information about each physical disk.

  4. The physical disk does not contain at least three unallocated partitions.

  5. The volume group contains file systems that are 100% full.

Answer: A, C


Which two capabilities are supported by Veritas Operations Manager (VOM)? (Select two.)

  1. Ability to manage multiple Storage Foundation hosts through a single console

  2. Ability to clone an entire diskgroup onto another system, such as for rolling out applications from test and development environments into production

  3. Ability to disable all DMP paths to a particular switch in a single operation, enabling the switch to be safely taken down for maintenance

  4. Ability to rollout Storage Foundation upgrades to multiple hosts through a single console

  5. Ability to automate the provisioning of Storage Foundation onto managed hosts

Answer: A, C


A customer has asked you to implement Storage Foundation 5.1 with keyless licensing using Veritas Operations Manager (VOM). Which of the following statements is true?

  1. Storage Foundation 5.1 can only be enabled if the VOM server is available and connected at installation time.

  2. Storage Foundation 5.1 can be enabled without a VOM server, but if the system is unable to connect to the VOM server within 60 days the server will be unable to import any diskgroups.

  3. Storage Foundation 5.1 can be enabled without a VOM server, but if the system does not connect to a VOM server within 60 days, then this will result in notifications of non- compliance being sent to the system logs.

  4. Storage Foundation 5.1 will cease to operate unless a valid license key for the server is entered into VOM within 60 days.

Answer: C


When configuring CVM diskgroups, how should the detach-policy ordinarily be set?

  1. all

  2. local

  3. global

  4. none

Answer: C


Which feature of Storage Foundation 5.1 Enterprise should be deployed to optimize the usage of Solid State Devices (SSD)?

  1. Dirty Region Logging (DRL)

  2. Disk Group Split and Join (DGSJ)

  3. Dynamic Storage Tiering (DST)

  4. Fast Mirror Resync (FMR)

Answer: C


When configuring mirrored volumes, which of the following statements is true? (Select two.)

  1. DRLs enable fast recovery of mirrored volumes after a plex is re-attached by tracking the blocks that have changed since the plex became detached

  2. DRLs enable fast recovery of mirrored volumes after a system crash by tracking the regions of the volume that are active at the time of the crash

  3. DRLs enable fast recovery of mirrored volumes by tracking the files on the volume that have changed

  4. DRLs should be configured for each plex within a mirrored volume

  5. DCOs can be configured to provide the same capabilities as DRLs in Storage Foundation 5.1

Answer: B, E


Which of the following RAID levels must be configured as layered volume within a Veritas Volume Manager diskgroup?

  1. RAID 0+1

  2. RAID 1+0

  3. RAID 1

  4. RAID 5

Answer: B


A customer has asked an administrator to create a space-optimized snapshot of a volume using the Veritas FlashSnap capabilities within Storage Foundation. The original volume is called "vol1" and the snapshot volume will be called "snap-vol1". Where is the snapshot data held for this snap volume?

  1. Cache Object

  2. vol1 Volume

  3. snap-vol1 Volume

  4. Filesystem

Answer: A


Which command should be used to determine how much space a space-optimized snapshot is using?

  1. df

  2. vxcache

  3. vxsnap

  4. vxvol

Answer: B


Which two features of Storage Foundation 5.1 Enterprise are most applicable for mirroring data between two different data centers? (Select two.)

  1. Dirty Region Logging (DRL)

  2. Disk Group Split and Join (DGSJ)

  3. Dynamic Storage Tiering (DST)

  4. Fast Mirror Resync (FMR)

  5. Site Awareness

Answer: D, E


Which volume layout achieves redundancy by striping data with parity across multiple disks?

  1. concatenation

  2. RAID 1

  3. RAID 5

  4. striped mirroring

Answer: C


Which statement is true about relinking the Oracle RAC libraries in SFRAC 5.1?

  1. The "installsfrac" "configure" command should be used to relink libraries.

  2. The libraries are dynamically linked when Oracle is started

  3. The only way to relink libraries is manually, using the ln command.

  4. In SFRAC 5.1, the libraries no longer need to be relinked.

Answer: A


What are the advantages of deploying Veritas Volume Manager for thin provisioned disks over the O/S Logical Volume Manager? (Select two.)

  1. None, the O/S Logical Volume Manager provides similar support for thin provisioning.

  2. Veritas Volume Manager provides an API that can be deployed by selected arrays to enable thin reclamation.

  3. Veritas Volume Manager has a SmartMove feature that facilitates fat to thin migration and enables volumes to be mirrored more efficiently across thin storage.

  4. Veritas Volume Manager has a SmartSync feature to enable only the blocks that have changed to be synchronized when a thin plex is reattached to a volume.

  5. Veritas Volume Manager has a Dynamic Storage Tiering (DST) capability to enable thick and thin storage tiers to be optimally deployed.

Answer: B, C


Which feature of Storage Foundation should be deployed when mirroring volumes that contain thin provisioned LUNs?

  1. Disk Group Split and Join (DGSJ)

  2. Fast Mirror Resync (FMR)

  3. SmartMove

  4. SmartSync

Answer: C

Symantec ASC-094 Exam (ASC Storage Management Assessment) Detailed Information

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What score must I achieve to pass an exam?
Who sees my exam score(s)?
If I do not pass an exam, can I find out which questions I got wrong?
How many times can I take an exam, is there a waiting period, and is there a cost to retake an exam?
How can I find out what topics an exam will cover?
Are the exams based on current Symantec product versions?
How do I know what software release version an exam covers?
Are practice or sample exams available?
Why does Symantec list a range of questions for exams?
How are the exams developed?
How are passing scores established?
Training and Education
The exams are computer-based and delivered at Pearson VUE testing centers. Pearson VUE provides computer-based testing for information technology, academic, government and professional testing programs around the world. Pearson VUE provides a full suite of services from test development to data management, and delivers exams through the world’s most comprehensive and secure network of Test Center Locations in 175 countries. Pearson VUE is a business of Pearson (NYSE: PSO; LSE: PSON), the international media company, whose businesses include the Financial Times Group, Pearson Education and the Penguin Group.
Are exams published on the same schedule worldwide?
Exams will be available on the same schedule worldwide in English at Pearson VUE. Translations will be determined on a country-by-country basis.
How do I register and pay for a Symantec certification exam?
To register for a Symantec certification exam, login or create a Symantec CertTracker account. Exam fees are payable by credit card or by voucher. View the step-by-step instructions on how to register.
View the step-by-step instructions on how to purchase exam vouchers.
How much does it cost to take an exam?
The fee for a standard released Certification exam is $225 USD (or your country’s currency equivalent).
Symantec reserves the right to change exam fees at any time. Always check Pearson’s website to verify exams costs, schedules, and locations.
What is the format of the exams?
Exams are delivered in multiple-choice format, with each having approximately 65-100 questions. It’s common for the exams to contain exhibits/graphics. Exhibits/graphics are shown directly above the question.
How much time is allowed to take an exam?
Allotted exam time varies by exam length. It typically takes one minute to complete each exam question.
How will I be notified that I have passed an exam?
Pearson VUE provides you with instant results at the completion of your exam. A score report will be printed and given to you before you leave the testing center. Candidates are also able to view exam progress by logging into CertTracker.
How will Symantec be notified that I have passed an exam?
Symantec receives candidate exam results daily via file transfers from Pearson VUE to CertTracker Be sure you keep your personal information in your CertTracker profile up-to-date so that you receive proper credit for exams passed and certifications earned.
What score must I achieve to pass an exam?
Passing scores vary by exam. For more information on specific certifications in each category, please see the certification exam details within your selected product solution training path.
Who sees my exam score(s)?
You, Symantec, and your company (if you designate).
If I do not pass an exam, can I find out which questions I got wrong?
No. Symantec maintains this policy to ensure security over the exam questions.
How many times can I take an exam, is there a waiting period, and is there a cost to retake an exam?
If you do not pass an exam on your first attempt, you must wait at least 3 days (72 hours) before a second attempt. If you do not pass an exam on your second attempt, then you must wait at least 2 weeks (14 days) between each additional attempt. If you need to retake an exam that you have already passed in order to fulfill a certification track requirement, you may do so after 3 months. The same cost applies whether you take an exam once or many times.
How can I find out what topics an exam will cover?
Certification requirements, sample exams, exam objectives, recommended training and registration is available for each certification and corresponding exam. For more information on specific certifications in each category, please see the certification exam details within your selected product solution training path.
Are the exams based on current Symantec product versions?
Exams are developed for the current version of the Symantec product release at the time of development. Exams may be updated after significant new versions are released. New exams may not always correspond to the software release schedule.
How do I know what software release version an exam covers?
For more information on specific certifications in each category, please see the certification exam details within your selected product solution training path.
Are practice or sample exams available?
Sample exams are available. Each sample exam consists of multiple-choice items. Some items may have a supporting exhibit which you will be directed to view before answering the item. The sample exams are not timed, however, you should attempt to complete them as quickly as you can. Certification requirements, sample exams, exam objectives, study guides, recommended training, and registration is available for each certification and corresponding exam. For more information on specific certifications in each category, please see the certification exam details within your selected product solution training path.
Why does Symantec list a range of questions for exams?
Symantec regularly conducts statistical analyses of certification exam results for exam maintenance purposes. In doing so, Symantec publishes a range of questions per exam to account for “unscored” questions. In order to ensure the value of the Symantec certification program, Symantec routinely updates exams with new questions on an unannounced basis. Those new questions are initially delivered as “unscored” so that Symantec can evaluate the performance in the field/on the released exam. The “unscored” questions do not count towards your passing score and additional time is already incorporated into the total exam duration to answer these questions.
Symantec also regularly updates exam questions where the actual number of questions per exam may vary from time to time as these unannounced updates occur.
How are the exams developed?
Symantec end users, both internally and in the field, are studied to define the job performance requirements. The results determine the minimum level of competence required for the defined job performance and is tested in the exams. Symantec follows industry standards for “high stakes” exam development.
How are passing scores established?
Although it is intuitive to think that an appropriate passing score for an examination should be 70 or 75 percent correct based on personal experiences taking classroom tests, these arbitrary values may not reflect the performance level expected of the “minimally qualified candidate” given the difficulty of the test. For example, if the examination is very easy, a passing score of 70 may be too low. However, if the examination is very difficult, this same value may be too high.
Establishing passing scores requires the application of systematic procedures that consider the defined performance level definition of the “minimally qualified candidate” and the difficulty of the examination. Before the final passing scores are established, they are evaluated to ensure that the available validity evidence supports their use for the intended purpose of distinguishing the “minimally qualified candidates” from those who are not yet qualified. This systematic method is used to establish and maintain the fairness, validity and reliability of exams.
In order to ensure the value of the Symantec certification program, Symantec routinely updates exams with new questions. In these cases the passing percentage could change per exam from time to time as these unannounced updates occur
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In a 2012 analyze, the Argonne countrywide Laboratory's vulnerability assessment group found out that attackers may exploit the integrity of an e-vote casting computer chassis with relative ease in spite of tamper-evident seals or locks. records kept on e-vote casting machines become no longer encrypted, leaving it at risk of interception, amendment or deletion by means of an attacker. within the Argonne study, white-hat hackers used after-market wireless card adapters to intercept and alter communications exchanged between e-balloting machines and the elections network infrastructure. The look at concluded that a success tampering with only one in three voting machines is ample to change the effect of an election. digital poll books are also highly susceptible to tampering. These electronic types of the voter rolls are used to technique voters at the polls in its place of a paper-based listing. Elections officers use voter registration portals to investigate that a specific voter is registered and eligible to vote at the precinct in query. Attackers who defeat the portals cybersecurity protections can unregister voters, exchange their mailing addresses and deliberately misspell their names with just a number of clicks. in many states, when incongruities exist in mailing addresses or the spelling of voters names, those ballots are flagged and disqualified for that election adventure. other vulnerabilities within the portals design might permit attackers to wage allotted denial of provider assaults in opposition t them. The influence can be catastrophic. vital servers on the network would be overwhelmed, and election officials can be prevented from connecting to the voter registration database to determine voter eligibility. treatments To boost e-vote casting machine protections, state election officials should still utilize U.S. Elections advice Committee's Election administration guidelines on physical protection . These instructions support the construction of policies, approaches and techniques that prescribe how county-stage election officers and assisting IT team of workers could be educated to observe and audit e-voting laptop tamper-evident seals and locks. So-referred to as zero reviews for voting infrastructure gadget are designed to make certain that the working state of the computer has not modified on the grounds that being bought from the supplier or following retrieval from storage previous to the outlet of the polls. additionally, the EAC offers a digital training environment for state elections personnel that makes a speciality of advertising physical and logical cybersecurity. The EAC course materials prescribe that state elections officials and subordinate county elections places of work adopt two-ingredient password authentication for all privileged voter registration device clients, behavior actual-time monitoring for ordinary pastime and hold logs of all alterations made online for the gadget. The EAC practising useful resource is provided to state governments at no charge. fighting towards assaults on election methods requires a collaborative method that orchestrates people, technique and know-how. State Secretary of State places of work may still coordinate with certified guidance programs Auditors and the national Cybersecurity and Communications Integration core to make the most of their cybersecurity equipment, assessment capabilities and incident response services. collectively, prospective state election officers and their federal partners can increase a standardized methodology to manipulate unbiased, third-party protection reviews and assessments of state and county voting system infrastructure environments. These assessments should still focus on hardware, together with tamper-detection and the response mechanism, as well as utility and the give chain process, including manufacturing and transport to county elections workplaces. A key consideration for the assessment is using certified moral hackers or penetration testers for any information superhighway-dealing with functions, reminiscent of voter registration programs and community connections. Remediation should still be prioritized across host techniques and the network, internet utility and static code as well because the voter registration enterprise database ambiance. To mitigate the competencies for tampering with digital poll books, all digital facts gathered ahead of, during and after an election event should still be backed up or retained on redundant storage devices -- on the community or by way of network storage. Paper pollbooks can additionally function a backup to e-pollbooks. Federal and state cooperation The skills of cyberattacks disrupting a countrywide or mid-term election have many election officials involved. a part of the treatment is superior partnership with the federal government to aid cut back the existential threats to balloting tools and approaches. The branch of place of birth security distinctive elections as essential infrastructure in 2018. The designation does not usurp state sovereignty on election methods; reasonably, it offers for information from DHS to audit state systems for cybersecurity vulnerabilities and more. finally, by way of increasing realizing of election system cybersecurity vulnerabilities, recruiting and training IT group of workers on how to establish and mitigate these vulnerabilities and dealing in a collaborative partnership with DHS and EAC, state and county election officials can assist increase citizen self belief and improve the integrity of the American electronic balloting manner. about the author Carnell Council is an AT&T Cybersecurity consultant. While it is hard errand to pick solid certification questions/answers assets regarding review, reputation and validity since individuals get sham because of picking incorrectly benefit. ensure to serve its customers best to its assets as for exam dumps update and validity. 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